Managerial Effectiveness - I (MB121) : July 2006

Managerial Effectiveness - I (MB121) : July 2006

• Answer all questions.
• Each question carries one mark.
1.
In every organization, workers receive and send information daily. This information will be flowing in many different directions. Which of the following best describes the direction of the flow of this information?
(a) Horizontal only (b) Downward only (c) External only
(d) Upward only (e) Upward and downward.
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2.
Organization personnel in performing their duties need to communicate with many people outside the organization. In that process communicating with groups and people outside the organization does not involve communicating with which of the following?
(a) Government (b) Service companies
(c) Customers (d) General manager of the organization
(e) Distributors.
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3.
Even if a boss thinks that internal personal communication is only for “personal matters” and wants to avoid this between employees so that valuable office time is properly utilized, it exists. But truly speaking, in the workplace, internal personal communication
(a) Cannot have any impact on the success of the operation
(b) Keeps employee active towards work
(c) Should be encouraged with no restrictions
(d) Is unacceptable
(e) Can have a significant impact on the success of the operation.
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4.
Which of the following is/are not the basic truths about the communication process?
I. The symbols of communication are imperfect.
II. Meanings are in words.
III. Meanings sent are not always received.
IV. The symbols of communication are perfect.
(a) Only (IV) above (b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above (d) Both (II) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.
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5.
Depending on the situation and objective of communication, communicator chooses different channels. Which of the following statements is/are not true with respect to the difference between oral and written communication?
I. If there is a reasonable chance that the other party will not understand the message, verbal channels are the preferred choice.
II. If there is a reasonable chance that the other party will not understand the message, written channels are the preferred choice.
III. Oral communication does not provide any evidence while written communication does.
IV. If the message should have detailed accuracy, written channels are best.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above (d) Both (I) and (IV) above
(e) (I), (III) and (IV) above.
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6.
Which of the following appropriately completes the sentence beginning with “Cross-cultural communication”?
I. Is difficult because no precise translation may exist.
II. Is consistent because all senders and receivers share a common language background.
III. Deals only with words and their meanings.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above (d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.
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7.
Technical words have their own role in writing the messages. Which of the following can be said regarding the technical words?
(a) Should be avoided because they lead to unwanted legal recourse
(b) Should be used to impress the reader
(c) Makes the receiver to understand the message properly
(d) Are proper if all the readers understand them
(e) Should be avoided because they may not be in the spell-check program.
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8.
Which of the following sentences has the least discriminatory wording?
(a) Raj worked at a school for children with special needs
(b) Jagan dresses nicely for an obese man
(c) Women have special reservation in government jobs
(d) She is very bright for a minority student
(e) The lady truck driver has an impressive safety record.
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9.
Simplicity in writing is stressed for several reasons. Which of the following is not a reason why simplicity in writing is stressed?
(a) Many writers know the subject better than the reader
(b) Many writers tend to write at a level that is too difficult
(c) It impresses the reader
(d) Convincing research supports the use of simplicity
(e) So that the reader understands in the same way that writer is conveying.
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10.
The redundancy in words always consumes the time of the reader while reading a message. Even it makes the reader to deviate from the central theme of the message. Which of the following sentences is the best example of needless repetition?
(a) At the Indian Military Academy, the military cadets receive excellent training
(b) The soccer practice will begin at 2 p.m
(c) Please submit your application for the Jagruti Foundation scholarship by May 12
(d) We are sponsoring two scholarships for the children of police officers killed on duty
(e) You get registered at the membership office before you leave.
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11.
A proper paragraph must have unity and coherence. It must be based on one central underlying idea that draws together all the sentences in the paragraph. Which of the following sentences illustrates good sentence unity?
(a) Lakshmi set the swimming record, and she plans to be a dentist
(b) Continuous Quality Improvement is a management concept in which work teams collaborate to meet the organizational goals
(c) The Brass Connection received certification, and sales increased 50 percent
(d) We serviced the equipment, and the production line was operated without interruption
(e) Mona went out for a walk in the countryside. She had a maid who was always breaking things.
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12.
“After years of effort and expenses, we have developed an electronic dictionary” is the statement given by a seller of electronic calculators. What is wrong with the statement?
(a) Nothing wrong with the statement since, it is explaining the efforts put in by the seller
(b) It is wrong because quantum of expenses involved is not mentioned
(c) It is wrong because it is emphasizing on the seller’s needs only
(d) It is wrong because sentence is not clear
(e) It is wrong because it is not explaining what sort of efforts is involved in developing electronic dictionary.
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13.
Business correspondence is one of the most common forms of communication. So common that people often neglect to write a letter carefully. Which of the following best illustrates good business writing?
(a) In compliance with your letter of July 8, we are in accord with your requests
(b) If you had read the instructions that came with the item, the problem with your sweeper would have never occurred
(c) For your protection, the personal information submitted with your order is kept confidential
(d) I am sorry about the incident, but I will not refund any money
(e) There seems to be a misunderstanding on your part of what commercial quality implies.
< Answer >
14.
There are many types of communication barriers. For the purpose of analysis, they can be placed into four categories; problems caused by the sender, problems in message transmission, problems in reception, problems in receiver comprehension and perception. Which of the following is not the problem caused by the sender?
(a) Number of transmission links (b) Order of presentation
(c) Lack of familiarity with the audience (d) Lack of experience in speaking or writing
(e) Too much knowledge about the subject.
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15.
Which one of the following are the learned behavior patterns that we usually pick up in childhood and can be explained by the way we use our spoons or our hands while eating?
(a) Adaptors (b) Illustrators (c) Regulators
(d) Proxemics (e) Emblems.
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16.
Listening on the job is not only frequent, it is very crucial as well for the success on the job. Which of the following, involves an attempt to distinguish one sound from all the others?
(a) Comprehensive listening (b) Critical listening
(c) Active listening (d) Discriminative listening
(e) Poor listening.
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17.
A memo is a written message designed to provide a fast and convenient way for people in the organization to communicate with each other. Which of the following is/are not the categories of memos?
I. Request.
II. Confirmation.
III. Interview.
IV. Congratulation.
(a) Only (III) above (b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above (d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.
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18.
To promote the listener’s comprehension of your ideas, and to maintain attention at a high level, one should organize body of the speech into meaningful groupings. In which of the following, one may tell causes of certain affects?
(a) Causal order (b) Spatial pattern
(c) Topical pattern (d) Chronological pattern
(e) Monologue pattern.
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19.
Business people often write letters requesting information about people, prices, products and services. Because the request is a door opener for future business, readers accept it optimistically. The close of a routine inquiry should
(a) Repeat the main question to be answered
(b) Apologize for asking
(c) Consist of goodwill words adapted to the specific case
(d) Contain a statement similar to "If you have any question, please do not hesitate to call"
(e) End with a buffer.
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20.
Which of the following are gestures that go with what we are saying verbally and tend to depict what is being said?
(a) Adaptors (b) Illustrators (c) Regulators
(d) Proxemics (e) Emblems.
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21.
Praise, when used skillfully and when it is sincere, can go a long way toward establishing an enduring culture of motivation in an organization Which of the following is not one of the tips given by communication consultants Peter and Susan Glaser to harness the power of praise?
(a) Make praise specific (b) Praise perfection only
(c) Praise progress (d) Be sincere
(e) Do not overdo praise.
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22.
To maintain good human relations, it is vital to emphasize the positive and de-emphasize the negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate wording telling of a delay in shipment?
(a) We are sorry for the delay in your shipment
(b) The computer parts you ordered will be shipped Friday when our stock will be replenished
(c) Due to a production equipment failure of our supplier, your order will not be shipped until Friday
(d) We must delay shipment until Friday when our supply will be replenished
(e) Delay in shipment is not because of our mistake.
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23.
Which of the following is/are the best of these closing statements for a claim message?
I. You must respond to my problem by May 22, or I will report you to the Better Business Bureau.
II. It would be extremely difficult to recommend your business to others based on this incident.
III. Based on my experience with your inferior product, I demand a refund.
IV. I will appreciate your usual promptness in correcting this problem.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (III) above
(c) Only (IV) above (d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
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24.
Feedback is the receiver’s response to a message; it can take number of verbal and nonverbal forms. Which of the following is not one of the examples of nonverbal feedback?
(a) Nodding one’s head (b) Shrugging
(c) Smiling (d) Using complex words
(e) Rolling one’s eyes.
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25.
Many things have to be kept in mind while formulating a message. You may be able to anticipate some problems and not able to anticipate some. Which of the following can go wrong when you are formulating a message?
(a) Lack of familiarity with the situation or the receiver
(b) Gestures, postures, and tone of voice
(c) Indecision about content
(d) Difficulty expressing ideas
(e) Lack of knowledge about the background of the receiver.
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26.
How much communicating is done in a business depends on
I. The nature of the business.
II. The operating plan of the business.
III. The people in the business.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above (d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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27.
One of your friends is much comfortable with oral communication than is with written communication, but you have a different opinion. You feel that there is a disadvantage with oral communication, which is
(a) The lack of opportunity of feedback
(b) People would rather write to each other than talk in person
(c) There is little opportunity to revise your words once you have uttered them
(d) Lack of flexibility
(e) Inability to control communication based on the response.
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28.
Which of the following statements about the communication process is false?
(a) Communication takes many forms-oral and written
(b) Communication is vital to every part of business
(c) Your performance in business will not be influenced by your communication ability
(d) If you communicate well, you are likely to be promoted
(e) Effective communication is essential for effective decision making.
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29.
Communication is a process consisting of various phases. Your friend has initiated a presentation about an idea of improving the existing product X. He has given an excellent presentation. At the end he has kept time for interaction. Your friend is at which of the following stages of communication process while interacting?
(a) Sending the message (b) Receiving the message
(c) Feedback (d) Interpreting the message
(e) Removing communication barriers.
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30.
While sailing through his software presentation to the new employees, Srikanth noticed a stony glaze on the eyes of some listeners. He then slowed down, reviewed the main points, and paused to encourage questions. Srikanth was striving to overcome communication barriers by
(a) Questioning his assumptions, biases, and prejudices
(b) Improving his language and listening skills
(c) Creating an environment for useful feedback
(d) Reducing physical distractions
(e) Being audience-centric.
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31.
For example, if a manager calls in a subordinate and says, “you did an excellent job in closing the sale to the Tata group,” this comment would generally be interpreted as one of praise. However, if the manager continues to look at some reports on the table while he speaks, it may be interpreted as
(a) High praise (b) Extremely impressed
(c) Extremely disturbed (d) Simply discouraging statement
(e) Simply an obligatory statement.
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32.
When choosing a specific channel or medium, it is important to be aware of the internal communication network within which the message is conveyed. Information flows in four ways through the internal communication network: downward; upward; lateral or horizontal and informal. Which of the following is not the purpose of lateral communication?
(a) Coordination of tasks (b) Sharing of information
(c) Problem solving (d) Conflict resolution
(e) Providing feedback.
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33.
As a communication expert put it: “Awareness of the more subtle voice characteristics, such as pleasantness, especially in combination with voice qualifiers, can do much to help individuals and organizations improve communication. Think, for instance, how much a company’s image can be helped by receptionist who sounds, both in person and over the telephone, ‘pleasant’, ‘confident’ and ‘competent’. The given examples can be described by which of the following components of paralanguage?
(a) Voice qualifiers (b) Vocal characteristics
(c) Voice pitch (d) Rhythm
(e) Pronunciation and enunciation.
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34.
__________ refers to the rising or falling inflection that tells you whether a group of words is a question or a statement, whether the speaker is uncertain or confident, or whether a statement is sarcastic or sincere.
(a) Volume (b) Pitch (c) Stress
(d) Tone of voice (e) Attribution.
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35.
Some times two identical verbal messages may communicate entirely different meanings when the tone of voice is different. Rhythm and pronunciation and enunciation are all considered parts of
(a) Voice quantifiers (b) Voice qualifiers
(c) Vocal characteristics (d) Vocal segregates (e) Postures.
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36.
When we hear, we only perceive sounds, but when we listen, this hearing is accompanied by a deliberate and purposeful act of the mind. To listen means to get meaning from what is heard. If a listener hears an unclear message, it is the listener's responsibility to
(a) Create obscurity in the message
(b) Use the time for making notes about a project due in a week
(c) Seek clarification from the speaker
(d) Turn to a third party for clarification
(e) Wait until the speaker finally clarifies the confusion.
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37.
Despite all the benefits, good listening skills are quite rare in the business world today. A number of studies have revealed why people listen poorly, despite the advantages of doing just the opposite. What activities are involved in effective listening?
(a) Looking at the speaker and physically hearing a message
(b) Physically receiving a message
(c) Physically receiving a message, interpreting, remembering, evaluating, and responding
(d) Physically receiving a message and interpreting it
(e) Receiving a message and immediately responding to it.
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38.
There are many steps to be followed in organizing the message. Organization of message will help in driving one’s point more clearly and efficiently. After getting the problem clearly in mind, the next step is to
(a) Talk over the problem with experts
(b) Decide what subject areas you need to investigate to study the problem
(c) Take a break
(d) Check the library for secondary sources
(e) Develop a detailed outline.
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39.
Researches have shown that, group decision-making follows a predictable pattern. Aubrey Fisher identified four stages in group problem solving. What are these stages (in order)?
(a) The orientation stage, the emergence stage, the conflict stage and the reinforcement stage
(b) The orientation stage, the conflict stage, the reinforcement stage and the emergence stage
(c) The emergence stage, the orientation stage, the conflict stage and the reinforcement stage
(d) The emergence stage, the orientation stage, the reinforcement stage and the conflict stage
(e) The orientation stage, the conflict stage, the emergence stage and the reinforcement stage.
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40.
Conflicts in the work place can be resolved in many ways. Which of the following measures does not help in resolving conflicts?
(a) Proaction dealing with minor conflict before it becomes major conflict
(b) Communication and getting those involved in conflict to participate in resolving it
(c) Determination making sure your viewpoint prevails
(d) Openness getting feelings out in the open before dealing with the main issues
(e) Recognizing the conflict clues.
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41.
Success in negotiation, like other things in life, does not just happen. A good deal of preparation is necessary to understand people involved, our expectations from the negotiation, how much we are willing to concede at the time of negotiation etc. Advantage of high bid in negotiation
(a) Provides a quick settlement (b) Ensures that the other party walks out
(c) Provides room for maneuvering (d) Improves chances of winning
(e) Enables win-win solution.
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42.
Conflicts are inevitable. Even the most amicable people get upset at times. Disagreements arise because individuals see, hear, and interpret things differently. Which of the following is/are potential sources of conflict?
I. Competition for scarce resources.
II. Poor communication.
III. Power struggles.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above (d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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43.
A lose-lose situation is hardly a desirable outcome. To avoid this, sometimes people compromise. In a compromising approach to conflict resolution, cooperation between the two parties is dictated by
(a) Jealousy (b) Altruism (c) Self-interest
(d) Good-manners (e) Willingness to lose.
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44.
Conflicts are inevitable in any work place but success in any work place depends on how best the conflicts are resolved. Meetings conducted to resolve a conflict are called
(a) Discussion (b) Collection (c) Information
(d) Negotiation (e) Arbitration.
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45.
Once you have decided on the format, you can start formulating specific questions. Each question must be so structured as to elicit just the information you want. The question which allows the respondent to classify his response by rating on a defined scale is
(a) Ranked question (b) Open question
(c) Closed question (d) Probing question
(e) Hypothetical question.
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46.
Whatever the type of interview, a good deal of planning is necessary to make the interview a successful one. There are six strategies. What are the most typical stages of an interview process?
(a) Interviews are typically done in one step
(b) The typical interview process has three steps: the screening, the selection, and the final stage
(c) The typical interview process has two steps: the screening and the selection stages
(d) The typical interview process has four steps: the pre-screening, the screening, the selection, and the final stage
(e) The typical interview process has five steps: the screening, the selection, recruitment, promotion, and retrenchment.
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47.
Whatever the type of interview, a good deal of planning is necessary to make the interview a successful one. There are six strategies for planning an interview-state the purpose, get information about the other party, decide the structure, consider possible questions, plan the physical setting and anticipate problems. Which of the following questions is not among the list of possible questions to ask the interviewer?
(a) Could you give me one reason for not hiring me?
(b) Why is this job vacant now?
(c) What additional training does your organization provide?
(d) What are your organization's major strengths and weaknesses?
(e) What growth opportunities do I have in your organization?
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48.
The physical setting in which the interview takes place can have a great deal of influence on the results. A setting with the minimum distractions is generally the best. Which of the following is true regarding the seating arrangement at the time of interview?
(a) When two parties face each other with no barriers between them there is a greater degree of formality
(b) An interviewer who address the respondent from behind a desk assumes greater control
(c) Two parties facing each other with no barriers between them is not suggestible at the time of interview
(d) Always see to it that there will not be any physical object creating distance between the interviewer and the respondent
(e) Physical setting at the time of interview will not make any difference to how the interview is conducted.
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49.
Sometimes ________ sessions are used to arrive at a decision. In which members are encouraged to generate as many ideas about a topic as they can. Every idea is recorded. No idea is rejected at the initial stage. The group then returns to the ideas and adopts those that seem most feasible or most useful.
(a) Nominal group technique (b) Brainstorming
(c) Filtering (d) Reflective thinking
(e) Random thinking.
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50.
Groups form to accomplish some objective. The objective may be to complete some kind of task or it may be to strengthen interpersonal relationships between the group members. Unwritten rules that govern the behavior of group members are referred to as
(a) Group maintenance roles (b) Parliamentary procedure
(c) Group norms (d) Robert's Rules (e) Ethics code.
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51.
When critically analyzing someone else’s writing, you should concentrate on
(a) Finding as many typos, misspellings, and grammatical errors as possible
(b) Determining whether the document accomplishes its intended purpose
(c) Making the writer feel good
(d) Making those improvements that would prove your one-upmanship
(e) Make sure that the message is written on an attractive paper.
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52.
Sometimes some members of a group have a better social standing or are better qualified than the others. Which of the following determines the manner in which members interact with each other?
(a) Size of the group (b) Leadership (c) Status
(d) Longevity (e) Perception and self-concept.
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53.
The purpose of every group is to achieve a specific goal or to arrive at a decision. However, different groups adopt different approaches to achieve their purpose. In which of the following stages of group decision making, group members endorse their final decision by using supportive verbal and nonverbal communication?
(a) The orientation stage (b) The conflict stage
(c) The emergence stage (d) The reinforcement stage
(e) The managing stage.
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54.
There are several reasons for meetings failing. One is that they are held at regular intervals for no particular reason; sometimes there are too many people present to make an effective decision. To set the stage for a successful meeting careful planning is crucial. Which of the following requires effective planning to conduct productive meetings?
(a) Purpose (b) Participants (c) Location
(d) Agenda (e) Time.
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55.
Your friend is working as a CEO of a small organization. He wants to convene a meeting of all the department heads to take a decision regarding the contemplated changes in existing procedures, to adopt a new one. What type of meeting would you suggest to your friend?
(a) Problem generating (b) Problem solving
(c) Informational (d) Change facilitating
(e) Transformational.
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56.
The purpose of group formation is to accomplish some objectives. The objective may be to complete some kind of task or it may be to strengthen interpersonal relationships between the group members. Many groups fulfill both these functions. Today’s work place mantra is teamwork. Which of the following is not a characteristic of teams?
(a) Individual and group accountability (b) Collective work products
(c) A specific purpose (d) Shared leadership roles
(e) Indirect measures of effectiveness.
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57.
Groups form to accomplish some objectives. The objective may be to complete some kind of task or it may be to strengthen interpersonal relationships between the group members. Sharing information, brainstorming ideas, evaluating ideas and motivating members are all considered part of
(a) Constructive criticism (b) Planning effective meetings
(c) Creating collaborative writings (d) Creating groupthink
(e) Performance appraisal.
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58.
The notice of a meeting must be accompanied by an agenda. To be effective, an agenda must be specific. The topics listed should not be vague. They must spell out what exactly will be discussed. Any relevant background reading material should be attached. A meeting agenda
(a) Is a formality that most groups skip these days
(b) Should be circulated a few days before the meeting
(c) Should be general rather than specific
(d) Is only a guideline, and deviations are common and expected
(e) Is meant to decide the schedule of next meeting.
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59.
After the meeting is over, the leader assesses the results. Was the purpose achieved? Did all the members participate in the discussion? Was the decision taken in an appropriate manner? How can the next meeting be conducted better? All of these questions are asked in which of the following stages of meeting?
(a) Concluding the meeting (b) Conducting business
(c) Following up the meeting (d) Sending the notice of the meeting
(e) Preparing minutes of the meeting.
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60.
One way of putting the participants at ease is by thanking everyone for coming and clearly stating what is expected to be accomplished. This ensures that everybody knows the purpose of the meeting. In which of the following stages will this come?
(a) Conducting business (b) Writing Minutes
(c) Concluding the meeting (d) Following up the meeting
(e) Opening the meeting.
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61.
In a particular group decision technique, members individually list all options that can be considered, then group facilitator asks each member to rank all the options from the lowest to the highest priority. The facilitator then computes an average score for each idea to determine the group’s highest priority. Which of the following techniques is being referred to?
(a) Reflective thinking (b) Brainstorming
(c) Nominal group technique (d) Consensus
(e) Positive thinking.
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62.
Groups/teams form to accomplish some objective. The objective may be to complete some kind of task or it may be to strengthen interpersonal relationships between the group members. The successful working of any team depends on the abilities of the leader in giving a proper direction to the teamwork. In planning a team-written document, members should develop a work plan, assign jobs, and
(a) Discuss how to avoid conflict
(b) Decide to be ruled by the majority
(c) Set deadlines
(d) Assign one person to boost morale by being the joker
(e) Let the leader dictate everything.
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63.
The place of a meeting is usually decided by custom or availability of space. Studies have shown that people react in certain predictable ways in certain physical surroundings. The seating arrangements can have a bearing on the outcome of the meeting. How far individual members are expected to participate in the meeting depends on how the leader positions himself in relation to the other participants. Which of the following seating arrangement focuses attention on the leader?
(a) Covertly directive (b) Overtly directive
(c) T-formation (d) The equalizing pattern
(e) Banquet style.
< Answer >
64.
The seating arrangements can have a bearing on the outcome of the meeting. Which of the following patterns indicates the leader wants all members to participate by speaking their minds?
(a) T-formation (b) Banquet style
(c) Overtly directive (d) Covertly directive
(e) Equalizing pattern.
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65.
Every business message has a purpose to achieve. To know whether the message is achieved its purpose or not, we need to properly check it. A good way to test the thoroughness of your business message is to check it for
(a) A main idea (b) A purpose
(c) The who, what, when, where, why, and how (d) Accuracy
(e) Grammatical correctness.
< Answer >
66.
Regardless of your background, knowledge, or skill, each time you speak it is a different and unique experience. Which of the following ways of speaking calls for the speech to be researched, outlined, practiced, and delivered in a conversational manner?
(a) Speaking from a manuscript (b) Speaking from memory
(c) Extemporaneous delivery (d) Impromptu delivery
(e) Speaking from a screen.
< Answer >
67.
Audience attention is crucial for any presentation for making it a success. Attentive audience can absorb the message properly and act upon, as you desire. Which of these will not help you to hold the attention of the audience while making a presentation?
(a) Relating your subject to the audience’s needs
(b) Using clear, vivid language
(c) Using humorous anecdotes
(d) Concentrating on yourself
(e) Using suitable visual aids.
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68.
While there are a variety of ways to approach the task of organizing the message, we shall concentrate on the method that involves formulating a core statement, which expresses the central idea of the message, phrasing main points to support the core statement. The main idea of a message is
(a) The "hook" that sums up why a particular audience should do or think as you suggest
(b) The broad subject of a message
(c) Identical with the topic
(d) Never directly presented to the audience
(e) The part with which the message is started.
< Answer >
69.
The length of the introduction depends on the length of the report. As a result, the length of the introduction can vary from one or two paragraphs to several pages. Which of the factors are covered in the limitations part of introduction?
(a) The factors affecting the quality of the report
(b) The factors that have led up to the report
(c) What is and what is not going to be covered in the report
(d) When, how and by whom the report was authorized
(e) The organization of the report along with a rationale for following this plan.
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70.
An illustration is the narration of a happening or incident which amplifies, proves, or clarifies the point under consideration. In which of the following types of illustration, real life characters are usually mentioned?
(a) Parable (b) Fable (c) Anecdote
(d) Analogies (e) Ancestral.
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71.
The text of a report follows the structure popular in oral presentation: Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them and tell them what you told them. Which of the following defines the second part tell them?
(a) Introduction (b) Body
(c) Summary, conclusions and recommendations (d) Appendix
(e) Executive summary.
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72.
Letter writing does not involve magic; you just have to think about it. Different types of letters are used in business for different purposes. Which of the following situations requires a persuasive letter instead of a claim letter?
(a) A wholesaler marked down the price of a product two days after you placed the order
(b) A wholesaler charged more for the product than advertised
(c) A company did not deliver a product by the date promised
(d) A product does not live up to advertised expectations
(e) A product does not live up to the quality of your previous purchase.
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73.
Dear Mr. Kumar,
This letter is in response to your letter of October 20 asking for a replacement of your stained Tiger Tuff carpet. There seems to be a misunderstanding of what commercial quality implies. Commercial quality refers to the durability of the nap, not to stain resistance.
You purchased pale-blue commercial quality, but then installed it in an industrial plant. This represents a misuse of the product. I have no control over the care and use of the carpet after it has been installed.
What is your opinion on the above written response to a claim letter?
(a) A well written reply since, customer misused the product
(b) A badly written reply since, it shows no concern for the reader’s problem and no regard for his status as a client
(c) A well written reply since, no other client will attempt the same
(d) A badly written reply since, the salutation is not proper
(e) A badly written reply since, the letter lacks clarity.
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74.
As a manager, you have received a message from the head office in the morning. To convey that news to your subordinates you prepared a message to circulate among your subordinates. You have decided to put the message straight-forward, because, that is a
(a) Persuasive message (b) Bad news message
(c) Routine, good news and goodwill message (d) Angry message
(e) Emotional message.
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75.
Based on the tone, content, position of the receiver, business messages can be classified into various types. Messages can be classified as informative, educative, persuasive, bad-news etc.
Which of the following would be classified as an informative or positive message?
(a) A request for information about a new retirement program
(b) An announcement of a policy that reduces benefits
(c) A memo for the file recording actions and rationales
(d) A letter to an employer announcing you have accepted another offer
(e) A notice asking employees to work on weekends for an important project.
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76.
In most of the occasions, success of the business communication depends on the benefit the message offers to the reader. If the reader thinks that the message is useful to him in any way, he responds to it positively. However, there is an exception. In which of the following situations you do not need to include reader benefits in your message?
I. When you are presenting factual information only.
II. When the reader’s attitude toward the information doesn’t matter.
III. When the reader need to be convinced.
IV. When you are writing an application letter.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (II) and (IV) above (d) Both (I) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.
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77.
All business communicators face the problem of compressing complicated, closely related ideas into a linear message that proceeds sequentially from point to point. To avoid the problem the message needs to be organized in a proper way. Which of the following is not considered a pattern of organizing a message?
(a) Give any good news and summarize the main points
(b) Give details, clarification, and background
(c) Disregard any reader benefits
(d) Use a goodwill ending
(e) Presenting the ideas logically.
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78.
How can one write an “effective” business letter? There is no foolproof method, but there are some useful guidelines. An “effective” letter is one that conveys the subject to the intended audience in such a way that the writer’s purpose is achieved. It is relatively easy to compose routine letters or pleasant letters, because
(a) There is little chance of antagonizing the audience-unless one uses bad words in a pleasant letter
(b) While writing a pleasant letter you do not need to be bothered about style of expression
(c) Pleasant letters need not be written in a formal structure
(d) Irrespective of the organization of the message, readers will always take it positively
(e) No need to bother about the length of the letter.
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79.
Whatever type of letter one is writing, it is always advisable to plan the letter with fundamentals of letter writing in mind-knowledge of the subject, audience, and purpose. A good beginning for an order letter would be
(a) Please send the following items
(b) Hi! My name is Rajdeep and I'd like to place an order
(c) Enclosed is a check for Rs. 4000
(d) Do you offer discounts for quantity purchases?
(e) Will you be able to process my order on time?
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80.
Whatever type of letter one is writing, it is always advisable to plan the letter with fundamentals of letter writing in mind-knowledge of the subject, audience, and purpose. When you are writing an unsolicited letter of inquiry, the letter should be
(a) Easy to write (b) Complex to write
(c) Detailed in manner (d) Brief in manner
(e) Indirect in manner.
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81.
Certain techniques of concluding are especially valuable for the ‘speech to inform’. Recently, you are attending classes to know how to deliver speeches or how to give presentation. In one of the classes, you were told about the closing of the speech or a presentation. As per the class, in closing you should do all of the following except
(a) Restate the main points (b) End on a positive note
(c) Emphasize structure (d) Describe the next step
(e) Summarizing the main points.
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82.
Claim letters and letters that request special favors are common types of persuasive requests. When writing your first letter to a company to ask for a claim or adjustment, which of the following will not give positive results?
(a) Stating the problem clearly (b) Providing relevant details
(c) Providing backup information (d) Requesting specific action
(e) Using the indirect plan to soften your request.
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83
Which of the following is true regarding an adjustment-grant message?
I. It is a good-news letter lending itself to direct treatment.
II. It must overcome a negative customer experience.
III. It needs to regain lost confidence in the company's product or service.
IV. It needs to avoid use of negative words that recall the unpleasant situation the reader wrote about.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) Both (II) and (III) above
(c) Both (III) and (IV) above (d) (I), (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
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84.
The importance of effective bad-news communication is illustrated by the story of a man who carried in his coat pocket a job-refusal letter he had received from a company some years ago. He would frequently show the superbly written letter to others and comment, “I would accept a job from this company any day because this letter made me feel good about myself even though the company could not hire me.”
Taking the indirect approach in a bad-news message provides the following advantages, except
(a) It eases the audience into your message by explaining your reasons before delivering the bad news
(b) It increases your chances of gaining audience acceptance of the bad news
(c) It makes a shorter message possible
(d) It prepares the reader gradually for the bad news
(e) It de-emphasizes the negative.
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85.
Just as good news is accompanied with supporting details, bad news should also be supported by reasons for the bad news. On what point do you want your readers to agree with you when you give them a bad-news message?
(a) You want them to agree that you are as disappointed in giving the bad news as they are about receiving it
(b) You want them to agree that your news, though negative, is fair and reasonable
(c) You want them to agree that you are not responsible for the decision that brought the bad news
(d) You want them to agree that the bad news will be followed by good news
(e) You want them to agree that giving bad news is nothing wrong.
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86.
The importance of effective bad-news communication is illustrated by the story of a man who carried in his coat pocket a job-refusal letter he had received from a company some years ago. He would frequently show the superbly written letter to others and comment, “I would accept a job from this company any day because this letter made me feel good about myself even though the company could not hire me.” Which of the following is crucial to convince your audience that the decision that produced the bad news is fair and logical?
(a) Firmness (b) A buffer
(c) A positive and friendly closing (d) Well presented reasons
(e) A note on the organization’s ethical report.
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87.
Your friend is writing a refusal message to one of his clients denying his credit request. Your friend asked your advice in developing facts of the case for the adjust refusal.
In developing the facts of the case for an adjustment refusal, you need to
(a) Question the reader's honesty
(b) Remind the reader of the facts she or he "forgot" or should know
(c) Write from the company's point of view
(d) Mentally place yourself in the reader's position
(e) Emphasize the negative situation by using negative words.
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88.
Which of the following statements is false regarding the explanation portion of the bad-news message?
(a) It should question the reader's actions
(b) It should tell people only what they need to know
(c) It should use passive voice to reduce the harshness of the news
(d) It should use clear language and avoid technical jargon
(e) It should cite your reasons for saying "no".
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89.
As in other persuasive letters, the primary purpose of a collection letter is to get action. A secondary goal is to maintain a customer’s goodwill. In the ultimatum stage of the collection series, the letter should be organized
(a) Deductively (b) Inductively (c) Legally
(d) Graciously (e) Emotionally.
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90.
All business messages are essentially persuasive messages. After all, writers convey messages with the aim of persuading readers to their point of view. For persuasive messages, the best approach is to
(a) Avoid the “you” attitude
(b) Get straight to the point
(c) Begin by making an interesting point that will capture the audience's attention
(d) Open with the main idea and then provide supporting points
(e) Begin with overt flattery.
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91.
The major function of the persuasive speech is to induce the audience to think, feel or act in a manner selected by the speaker. You may want your listeners to discard old beliefs or form new ones; or you may merely want to strengthen opinions that they already hold. When you are preparing a persuasive message, it should be connected to
(a) The message writer's needs and interests
(b) The audience's desires, interests, and needs
(c) The interests of the society
(d) The strategies of marketing specialists
(e) The organization’s policies.
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92.
What is wrong with the following response to an order letter? “Thank you for your order, which we really appreciate. We sincerely welcome you to our ever-growing list of satisfied customers. We were delighted to send you 30 porta-phone telephones. They were shipped by express today”
(a) It delays the main idea and sounds cliched
(b) It is too direct and positive
(c) It is too aggressive and direct
(d) It delays the main idea and sound too sincere
(e) It is too short.
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93.
Your business leases and services washing machines and dryers in several apartment buildings. You are considering buying a microcomputer to help you in record kepping. A good first sentence for a message seeking information would be
(a) “My business leases and services washing machines and dryers in several apartment buildings”
(b) “I am considering buying a microcomputer to use with my business”
(c) “I am considering buying a microcomputer for record keeping in my business”
(d) “Tell me something about microcomputers and record keeping in small business”
(e) “Do you lease microcomputers to small business in this area?”.
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94.
While structuring the resume, never let your prospective reader out of sight. A resume that emphasizes the compatibility of your qualifications and the prospective employers’ job requirements is more likely to get a favorable response than one that highlights all your strong points but is of little use to the employer. What does a functional resume emphasize?
(a) A list of skills and accomplishments (b) Academic background
(c) Career objectives (d) Employment history
(e) References.
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95.
Most college graduates look for entry-level positions. Before deciding it would be helpful to answer the questions like, what are the specific duties and responsibilities? Do the specific duties and responsibilities seem compatible with my personal characteristics, attitudes, interests? Which of the following do they come under?
(a) Self analysis (b) Job analysis (c) Career analysis
(d) Company analysis (e) Environment analysis.
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96.
To make yourself heard above the din of the marketplace you must not only have a clear idea of exactly what kind of employment would suit you best, but also the ability to sell yourself effectively to would be employer. Which of the following is true regarding a "perfect" resume?
(a) It responds to the needs and preferences of the reader
(b) It is written in a chronological format
(c) It is organized around a list of skills and accomplishments
(d) It is electronic
(e) It gives emphasis on what you are good at.
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97.
While structuring the resume, never let your prospective reader out of sight. A resume that emphasizes the compatibility of your qualifications and the prospective employers’ job requirements is more likely to get a favorable response than one that highlights all your strong points but is of little use to the employer. Which of the following past jobs should be given the most space in your resume?
I. Your most recent jobs.
II. Jobs that relate most to your target position.
III. The jobs that you enjoyed most.
IV. The jobs at the most well-known organizations.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above (d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.
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98.
Which of the following is not a reason for using memos?
I . They are convenient.
II. They are usually long.
III. They usually take little time to read or write.
IV. They provide a written record for future reference.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above (d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (I) and (IV) above.
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99.
The initials of the person who has keyed in or types the letter appears in lowercase and the reference initials are omitted when the writer himself keys the letter in. The reference initials are placed
(a) On the top of the letter
(b) A double space below the signature block
(c) A double space below the complimentary close
(d) A double space after the inside address
(e) A double space below the subject line.
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100.
Which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) I wouldn’t let it happen if I was there
(b) I won’t let it happen if I was there
(c) I wouldn’t have let it happen if I were there
(d) I won’t have let it happen if I were there
(e) I wouldn’t let it happen if I am there.
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16
Suggested Answers Managerial Effectiveness - I (MB121) : July 2006
1.
Answer: (e)
Reason: The information flows upwards and downwards among workers in an organization.
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2.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Communicating with groups and people outside the organization does not involve communicating with the employees of the organization.
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3.
Answer: (e)
Reason: In the workplace, internal personal communication can have a significant impact on the success of the operation.
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4.
Answer: (d)
Reason: We can not confirm that the symbols of communication can be perfect in a communication process and meanings are not in words but in receiver.
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5.
Answer: (b)
Reason: If there is a reasonable chance that the other party will not understand the message, verbal channels are the preferred choice. Hence, (II) statement is wrong.
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6.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Is difficult because no precise translation may exist, only completes the sentence given in the question.
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7.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Technical words are proper if all the readers understand them .
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8.
Answer: (a)
Reason: The sentence “Raj worked at a school for children with special needs “ has least discriminatory wording.
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9.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Simplicity in writing is not stressed because of the reason it impresses the reader
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10.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Option (a) is the correct answer.
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11.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Sentence “continuous Quality Improvement is a management concept in which work teams collaborate to meet the organizational goals” is the sentence which has unity.
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12.
Answer: (c)
Reason: It is wrong because it is emphasizing on the seller’s needs only.
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13.
Answer: (c)
Reason : The statement for your protection, the personal information submitted with your order is kept confidential, best illustrates good business writing.
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14.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Number of transmission links is not the problem caused by the sender. It is the problem in message transmission. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
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15.
Answer: (a)
Reason: The behaviors are called adaptors. Hence option (a) is correct.
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16.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Discriminative listening involves an attempt to distinguish one sound from all the others. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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17.
Answer: (e)
Reason: There is no category called interview memo or congratulation memo. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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18.
Answer: (a)
Reason: In causal order one may tell causes of certain affects. Hence, option (a) is correct.
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19.
Answer: (c)
Reason: The close of a routine inquiry should consist of goodwill words adapted to the specific case. Hence, other options are wrong.
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20.
Answer: (b)
Reason: These gestures are called Illustrators. Hence option (b) is correct.
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21.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Praise perfection only not one of the tips given by communication consultants peter and Susan Glaser.
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22.
Answer: (b)
Reason: The most appropriate wording telling of a delay in shipment is “the computer parts you ordered will be shipped Friday when our stock will be replenished”.
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23.
Answer: (c)
Reason: I would appreciate you usual promptness in correcting this problem is the best closing statement among the given options. Hence, option (c) correct.
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24.
Answer: (d)
Reason : Using complex words is not one of the examples of nonverbal feedback. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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25.
Answer: (b)
Reason : When formulating message we do not think about the gestures, postures and tone of voice.
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26.
Answer: (e)
Reason: How much communicating is done in a business depends on the nature of the business, its operating plan and the people involved.
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27.
Answer: (c)
Reason : A disadvantage of oral communication is that there is little opportunity to revise your words once you have uttered them.
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28.
Answer: (c)
Reason: A person’s performance in business is will be influenced by his/her communication ability.
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29.
Answer: (c)
Reason : Your friend is at the feedback stage of the communication process.
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30.
Answer: (c)
Reason : Srikanth was striving to overcome communication barriers by creating an environment for useful feedback
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31.
Answer: (e)
Reason : This can be interpreted as simply an obligatory statement.
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32.
Answer: (e)
Reason: Providing feedback is not the purpose of lateral communication.
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33.
Answer: (b)
Reason: The example is described by the vocal characteristics, a component of paralanguage.
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34.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Tone of voice refers to the rising or falling inflection that tells you whether a group of words is a question or a statement, whether the speaker is uncertain of confident, or whether a statement is sarcastic or sincere.
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35.
Answer: (b)
Reason: They signify voice qualifiers. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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36.
Answer: (c)
Reason: If a listener hears an unclear message, it is the listener's responsibility to seek clarification from the speaker. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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37.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Five activities usually occur sequentially in effective listening: physically receiving a message, interpreting, remembering, evaluating, and responding. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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38.
Answer: (b)
Reason: After getting the problem clearly in mind next logical step is to decide what subject areas you need to investigate to study the problem. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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39.
Answer: (e)
Reason: Aubrey Fisher identified four stages in group problem solving. They are A. orientation stage, B. The conflict stage, C. The emergence stage, D. The reinforcement stage. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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40.
Answer : (c)
Reason : Determination-making sure your viewpoint prevails would not help to resolve he conflict. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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41.
Answer: (c)
Reason: A higher bid in negotiations always provides the bidder better room for maneuvering. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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42.
Answer : (e)
Reason : Competition for scarce resources, poor communication and power struggles lead to conflict. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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43.
Answer: (d)
Reason: In compromising approach cooperation between two parties is dictated by good manners. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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44.
Answer: (d)
Reason: The meetings conducted to resolve conflicts are called negotiation. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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45.
Answer: (a)
Reason: A ranked question contains various ratings that can be given for the response. Hence, option (a) is correct.
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46.
Answer: (b)
Reason: The typical interview process has three steps: the screening, the selection, and the final stage. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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47.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Could you give me one reason for not hiring me is not one of the questions. Hence, option (a) is correct.
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48.
Answer: (b)
Reason: An interviewer who address the respondent from behind a desk assumes greater control, is the true statement. Hence, option (b) is true.
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49.
Answer: (b)
Reason: The sessions are termed as brainstorming sessions. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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50.
Answer : (c)
Reason : Unwritten rules that govern the behavior of group members are referred to as group norms. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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51.
Answer : (b)
Reason : When critically analyzing someone else’s writing, it’s important to determine whether the document accomplishes its intended purpose. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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52.
Answer: (c)
Reason : Status of the members determines the manner in which they interact with each other. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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53.
Answer: (d)
Reason: In the reinforcement stage of group decision making, group members endorse their final decision by using supportive verbal and nonverbal communication. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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54.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Agenda requires effective planning to conduct productive meetings. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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55.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Problem solving meetings usually focus on arriving at a decision. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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56.
Answer: (e)
Reason: Groups will always have direct measures of effectiveness. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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57.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Sharing information, brainstorming ideas, evaluating ideas and motivating members are all considered part of planning effective meetings. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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58.
Answer: (b)
Reason : A meeting agenda is usually circulated a few days before the meeting. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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59.
Answer: (c)
Reason: All these things come under following up the meeting. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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60.
Answer: (e)
Reason: All these things come under opening the meeting. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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61.
Answer: (c)
Reason: The technique is called nominal group technique. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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62.
Answer: (c)
Reason : In planning a team-written document, members should develop a work plan, assign jobs, and set deadlines. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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63.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Overtly directive seating arrangement focus on the leader. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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64.
Answer: (e)
Reason: Equalizing pattern indicates the leader wants all members to participate by speaking their minds. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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65.
Answer: (c)
Reason : A good way to test the thoroughness of your business message is to check it for who, what, when, where, why, and how of the message. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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66.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Extemporaneous delivery calls for the speech to be researched, outlined, practiced, and delivered in a conversational manner. Hence, option (c) correct.
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67.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Concentrating only on you will distract the attention of audience, and is not recommended while making a presentation. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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68.
Answer: (a)
Reason : The main idea of a message is the "hook" that sums up why a particular audience should do or think as you suggest.
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69.
Answer : (a)
Reason: The factors affecting the quality of the report are covered in the limitations part of introduction. Hence, option (a) is correct
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70.
Answer : (c)
Reason: The illustration in which real life characters are usually mentioned is called anecdote.
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71.
Answer: (b)
Reason: Body defines the second part tell them. Hence, option (b) is correct
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72.
Answer: (a)
Reason: “A wholesaler marked down the price of a product two days after you placed the order” the above situation requires a persuasive letter instead of a claim letter.
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73.
Answer: (b)
Reason: A badly written reply since, it shows no concern for the reader’s problem and no regard for his status as a client.
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74.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Routine, good news, and goodwill messages are the most straightforward.
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75.
Answer: (c)
Reason: A memo for the file recording actions and rationales would be classified as an informative or positive message.
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76.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Reader benefits are not needed in any of the above situations.
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77.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Disregarding reader benefits is not one of the patterns of organization..
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78.
Answer : (a)
Reason : It is relatively easy to compose routine letters or pleasant letters, because there is little chance of antagonizing the audience-unless one uses bad words in a pleasant letter
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79.
Answer : (a)
Reason : Of all the options given, “Please send the following items” is a good beginning for an order letter.
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80.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Unsolicited letter of inquiry are brief in manner conveying the information required in very few sentences.
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81.
Answer: (c)
Reason: During the closing of the speech, restating the main message, summarizing the main points, ending on a positive note, and describing the next action plans prove to be useful techniques, in helping the audience follow the speech by summarizing as you go and emphasizing transition
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82.
Answer: (e)
Reason: Using the indirect plan to soften your request for claim will not give positive result
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83.
Answer : (e)
Reason: All of the above are true about an adjustment-grant message. Hence, option (e) is correct.
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84.
Answer: (c)
Reason: Taking the indirect approach in a bad news message does not result in a shorter message. In fact, it leads to elaborate messages.
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85.
Answer: (b)
Reason: You don't have to express your disappointment when giving bad news. But you want them to agree that your news, though negative, is fair and reasonable.
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86.
Answer: (d)
Reason: Presenting reasons is very important to convince the audience about your message, that your message is logical and fair. Remaining things can only supplement the reason offered.
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87.
Answer: (d)
Reason: While developing the facts for the refusal message try to mentally place yourself in the reader's position to understand how particular message will impact the reader.
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88.
Answer: (a)
Reason: The explanation part of the bad news message should not question the actions of the reader.
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89.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Sometimes bad news is appropriately placed in the first sentence. Later in the collection series, nothing has worked. At this stage a deductive letter might achieve the desired result.
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90.
Answer: (c)
Reason : For persuasive messages, the best approach is to begin by making an interesting point that will capture the audience's attention.
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91.
Answer: (b)
Reason: The best persuasive messages are connected to the audience's desires, interests, and needs.
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92.
Answer: (a)
Reason: Considering that this was a favorable response to an order letter, there was no need to delay the main message till sentence 4. The opening sentences sound clichéd and say the same thing that has been said to thousands of other customers.
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93.
Answer: (e)
Reason: While seeking information it is advisable to start with a direct statement of what we are looking for.
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94.
Answer: (a)
Reason: A functional résumé emphasizes skills and accomplishments rather than employment history
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95.
Answer: (b)
Reason: It is called job analysis.
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96.
Answer: (a)
Reason: A resume can be called a perfect resume if it emphasizes on what the reader(employer) expects.
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97.
Answer: (c)
Reason : The jobs that relate most to your target position and the most recent job should get the most space
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98.
Answer: (d)
Reason: One does not use memos because they are long and they usually take little time to read or write. In fact, one uses them because they are generally short and convenient hence, takes less time. Option (d) is correct.
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99.
Answer: (c)
Reason : The reference initials of the person who has keyed in or typed the letter appears in lowercase a double space below the signature block.
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100.
Answer : (c)
Reason : Option (c) is correct.
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