Business Communication (MB121) : July 2004 : 1.2

51. Identify two types of claim letters:
I. Routine claim letters II. Neutral claim letters
III. Persuasive claim letters IV. Aggressive claim letters.
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(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above (d) Both (III) and (IV) above
(e) Both (II) and (IV) above.
52. The seating arrangements in a meeting can have a bearing on the final outcome of the meeting. Studies
have shown that people react in certain predictable ways to certain physical surroundings. Which of the
following types is suitable for large groups that are meeting to obtain information?
(a) The banquet style (b) T formation style
(c) Participative style (d) Equalizing style (e) Theatre style.
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53. An order letter is a letter sent to any person who has the goods we intend to buy. In this letter details are
usually tabulated, especially when more than one item is ordered. The order letter should not start with
which of the following sentences?
(a) “Please send” (b) “I am interested,”
(c) “Please ship” (d) “I order” (e) “Please mail”.
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54. Which of the following is true regarding a bad news letter?
I. The introductory paragraph should be a neutral, relevant, succinct lead-in to the bad news
II. The introductory paragraph should not be clear enough
III. The introductory paragraph should not be misleading.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above (c) Only (I) and (II)
above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above (e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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55. Visual aids help communicate the subject matter clearly and attractively. In this light, which of the
following visual aids is helpful in presenting time relationships?
(a) Pie charts (b) Bar charts (c) Line charts (d) Tables
(e) Gantt charts.
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56. Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct and conveys the meaning clearly.
(a) The workers removed all the furniture from the room and cleaned it
(b) After removing all the furniture from it, the workers cleaned the room
(c) The workers cleaned all the furniture after removing it from the room
(d) The workers cleaned it after removing all the furniture
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.
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57. One difference between a letter of transmittal and a foreword is
(a) The foreword never attempts to summarize or interpret the material
(b) The foreword is usually written in impersonal style
(c) The foreword is not likely to be written on letterhead stationery
(d) The letter of transmittal may use personal pronouns
(e) The letter of transmittal may use conversational style.
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58. You head the HR department of Srikanth Organics, a small company manufacturing organic chemicals.
Recently the top management decided to introduce a three-shift system in the plant, instead of the twoshift
system now in place. The new shift system goes into effect next Monday. Today is Friday. You
have to inform the employees about this decision, and generally, convince them that this change is in
their interests. To communicate this to the employees, would you use an oral message or a written one?
And why?
(a) Oral message because if it is written message employees may not read
(b) Oral message because immediate changes need to be made
(c) Written message because it should be formal
(d) Written message because you do not need immediate feedback
(e) None of the above.
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59. The Managers association
Andheri
Bombay
June 31, 2004
Mr. M.Srikanth
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Panjagutta, Hyderabad.
Dear Mr.Srikanth
Your recent article, “Changing roles of managers in today’s competitive environment” attracted the
attention of many managers in the country…………
Sincerely,
Ravishanker
Manager
The letter is written in
(a) Block format with open punctuation
(b) Block format with mixed punctuation
(c) Modified block format with open punctuation
(d) Modified block format with mixed punctuation
(e) Simplified block format with open punctuation.
60. Whatever the type of letter one is writing, it is always advisable to plan the letter keeping the
fundamentals of letter writing in mind. What are the fundamentals?
(a) Knowledge of the subject, audience, and purpose
(b) Knowledge of the subject, distance it has to travel, and purpose
(c) Knowledge of the subject, type of benefits expected from the letter, distance it has to travel
(d) Purpose of the letter, distance it has to travel, and capacity of the audience
(e) Purpose of the letter, knowledge of the subject, budget allocated for correspondence .
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61. Anita went out for a walk in the countryside. She had a maid who always breaking things. Her
daughter needed a haircut. Anita was very fond of her aunt.
The paragraph
(a) Is well written, it talks about many in issues in a simple paragraph
(b) Is well written, it has good language
(c) Lacks coherence, the sentences in the paragraph do not relate to each other
(d) Lacks unity, it does not adhere to any one idea
(e) Both (c) and (d) above.
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62. Which of the following questions would be appropriate during an employment interview?
(a) What is your spouse’s occupation and how many children do you have?
(b) Why did you leave your previous job?
(c) What is your religion?
(d) What health problems do you have?
(e) What is your family background?
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63. Standard or mixed punctuation uses ________ after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary
close.
(a) A period (b) An apostrophe
(c) Exclamation mark (d) A semi colon (e)
A colon.
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64. Giving a controversial item only half an hour at the end of the meeting makes people
(a) Appreciate putting the discussion off until the end
(b) Suspect that leaders are trying to manipulate them
(c) Value the item more because they have waited to hear about it
(d) Thankful because they can pack up while others are discussing it
(e) Remain passive listeners till the end of meeting.
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65. Mr. Karunakar working as a Finance Manager in Mohini Textile. He entereted into his boss Mr.
Srikanth’s room with a detailed report on how to improve the efficiency of the finance department.
After having gone through the report, boss felt very happy and congratulated Karunakar for the good
work done. The gesture of patting an employee on the back for a job well done is
(a) Emblems (b) Adaptors (c) Illustrators
(d) Regulators (e) Both (b) and (c) above.
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66. There are many ways to ensure better listening. Which of the following signifies understanding
speakers and imagining how your audience will respond to your speech?
(a) Adjust your delivery (b) Empathize
(c) Utilize feedback (d) Be clear (e) Be interesting.
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67. Which of the following does not come under the ethics of interviewing?
(a) Do not make unrealistic promises (b) Do not reveal confidential information
(c) Do not ask illegal questions (d) Do not ask personal questions
(e) Both (a) and (b) above.
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68. An interview is a goal-oriented, interpersonal communication between an interviewer and an
interviewee. Which of the following is not one of the categories of business interviews?
(a) Employment interviews (b) Relationship interviews
(c) Performance appraisal interviews (d) Counseling interviews
(e) Disciplinary interviews.
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69. For the position of a Sales Executive in Ravi Electronics, interviews are being conducted by the
marketing manager. You being the personnel manager, you are asked to advice regarding types of
questions to be asked in the interview. You told the marketing manager that, types of question to be
asked depends on the kind of information we are expecting from the respondent and gave him the
following options. Which of the following is true?
(a) It is advisable to ask close-ended questions when the interviewer wants precise information on a
specific issue
(b) It is advisable to ask open-ended questions when the interviewer wants precise information on
specific issue
(c) It is advisable to ask close-ended question when the interviewer wants to explore the breadth and
depth of potential information
(d) It is advisable to ask close-ended question when interviewer wants to provide the opportunity for
respondent to reveal feelings and information
(e) It is advisable to ask open-ended questions when interviewer wants to save time.
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70. In which of the following group decision techniques, the group must rank a set of options. Members
individually list all options that can be considered then group facilitator asks each member to rank all
the options from the lowest to the highest priority. The facilitator then computes an average score for
each idea to determine the group’s highest priority.
(a) Reflective thinking (b) Brainstorming
(c) Nominal group technique (d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) None of the above.
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71. An illustration is the narration of a happening or incident which amplifies, proves, or clarifies the point
under consideration. In which of the following types of illustration, real life characters are usually
mentioned.
(a) Parable (b) Fable (c) Anecdote
(d) Analogies (e) None of the above.
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72. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Letters that convey pleasant messages are referred to as “good news” letters
II. Letters not likely to generate any emotional reaction are referred to as routine letters
III. Letters not likely to generate any emotional reaction are referred to as bad news letters.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above (d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
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73. Which of the following is not true regarding writing the strong-appeal letter emphasizes urgency?
(a) Instead of discussing why the debtor does not pay, talk about why the debtor must pay
(b) Decrease the persuasive tone. Become more demanding
(c) Offer the debtor a choice between two or more thins, none of which enables the debtor to get off
the hook
(d) Consider using deductive approach
(e) Try to be more persuasive.
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74. In the introductory section, if you felt it necessary to describe what is included in the problem of the
report, you would probably include a section on
(a) Definitions (b) Origin
(c) Scope (d) Historical background
(e) Limitations.
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75. An effective resume
I. Uses facts, not opinions
II. Presents the strongest qualifications first
III. Is as specific as possible about what the candidate wants to do
IV. Mentions religious or political affiliations.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) (I), (II) and (III) above
(c) (I), (II) and (IV) above (d) (I), (III) and (IV) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
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76. Which of the following is not the main goal while responding to a request that involves a potential sale?
(a) Responding to the immediate request
(b) Conveying a good impression of yourself
(c) Conveying a good impression of the firm
(d) Encouraging the sale
(e) Composing a “personal” reply.
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77. Which of the following is not a quality of well-written application letter?
(a) The letter should contain sentences depicting latest information about developments in the
company
(b) The letter should be limited to one page
(c) The letter should be addressed to the person, not to the title
(d) The letter should not use ‘you’ attitude
(e) The letter should emphasize on the job requirement.
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78. Without missing the necessary points the ideal length of the application letter is
(a) One page (b) Half-a-page (c) One and half-a-page
(d) Two pages (e) There is no limit.
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79. The “elements” of a report refer to those components that are usually included in a formal business
report. Which of the following is the name of the element that introduces the purpose and content of
the report to the principal reader?
(a) Title page and title fly (b) Abstract (c) Letter of transmittal
(d) Executive summary (e) Glossary and list of symbols.
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80. Which of the following is not included in a letter of transmittal?
(a) A statement of the title
(b) An acknowledgment of any assistance received in preparing the material
(c) A diagram showing the progress of the report
(d) A statement of the principal results, conclusions and recommendations
(e) None of the above.
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81. The body of a speech to inform can be organized in any pattern except
(a) Spatial pattern (b) Causal pattern (c) Topical pattern
(d) Motivated pattern (e) None of the above.
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82. Which of the following will not help you customize your message to suit the needs of your audience?
(a) Identifying the primary audience
(b) Emphasizing the ideas that are most important to you
(c) Gauging the audience’s level of understanding
(d) Estimating the audience’s probable reaction
(e) Identifying the occasion.
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83 The most general statement of the speech is called “core statement” and the least general statements are
called
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(a) Main points (b) Sub points (c) Trivial points (d) Extra points
(e) Ordinary points.
84. Selection of the right medium plays a very important role in a successful presentation. It is advisable to
use handouts
(a) When addressing a small group of people
(b) When you want your audience to be attentive to your speech
(c) When you want your audience to visualize and become involved
(d) When you want to keep your audience in touch with the subject and main ideas of presentation
(e) When you want to keep your audience surprised with your presentation.
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85. When responding to a customer’s complaint, which of the following generally pays?
(a) Refer the customer to a third party for satisfaction
(b) Adopt a stern tone
(c) Adopt an uncompromising tone
(d) Assume that the customer’s account of the transaction is an honest statement of what happened
(e) Refer to the benefits of your product or service.
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86. Audience analysis enables you to establish a _______ with your listeners.
(a) Repute (b) Residue (c) Rapport (d) Retention
(e) Reception.
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87. ______ is not an attention getting device for an unsolicited sales letter.
(a) An old adage (b) A provocative question
(c) A bargain (d) A challenge (e) None of the above.
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88. The _______________ delivery is often referred as the “middle course”.
(a) Impromptu (b) Extemporaneous (c) Manuscript
(d) Memorized (e) Pedagogy.
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89. ________ resumes are scanned for input into a database
(a) Apathetic (b) Traditional (c) Electronic (d) Electric (e)
Eclectic.
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90. What do informational reports such as monitor/control reports focus on?
(a) Analyses (b) Recommendations (c) Data
(d) Inquiry (e) Explanations.
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91. How can you best prepare for the question-and-answer session that follows the presentation?
(a) You can give your audience a list of questions they may ask
(b) You can think about potential questions and answers as part of the preparation for the presentation
(c) There is no practical way of preparing for the question-and-answer session
(d) You can memorize answers to some potential questions
(e) You can discourage your audience from asking questions.
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92. What activities are involved in effective listening?
(a) Looking at the speaker and physically hearing a message
(b) Physically receiving a message
(c) Physically receiving a message, interpreting, remembering, evaluating, and responding
(d) Physically receiving a message and interpreting it
(e) Receiving a message and immediately responding to it.
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93. What is crucial to convince your audience that the decision that produced the bad news is fair and
logical?
(a) Firmness (b) A buffer
(c) A positive and friendly closing (d) Well-presented reasons
(e) A note on the organization’s ethical record.
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94. A manager providing a job assignment to a subordinate is engaged in:
(a) A feedback barrier (b) A noise barrier
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(c) Downward communication (d) Horizontal communication
(e) Strategic communication.
95. During which stage of group development does the team choose a leader?
(a) Orientation (b) Formation (c) Coordination (d) Formalization
(e) Dissolution.
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96. An oral presentation needs to be
(a) Simpler than a written message
(b) Neither more simpler nor more complex than a written message
(c) More complex than a written message
(d) More comprehensive than a written message
(e) None of the above.
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97. It is appropriate to make your ideas relevant to your audience by
(a) Linking what you have to say to the audience's experiences and interests
(b) Flattering or cajoling your audience
(c) Telling your audience only what it wants to hear
(d) Bragging about yourself
(e) None of the above.
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98. Of the following, the best way to begin a routine inquiry message is with
(a) A compliment (b) Informational statement
(c) Goodwill comment (d) Explanation
(e) A question.
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99. If your reply contains both good news and bad news, handle the bad news by
(a) Covering it thoroughly to be convincing
(b) Putting it at the end of the message
(c) Placing it in a position of little emphasis
(d) Putting it at the beginning or end of the middle paragraph
(e) Putting it at the beginning of the message.
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100. Which of the following is true regarding an adjustment-grant message?
(a) It is a good-news letter lending itself to direct treatment
(b) It must overcome a negative customer experience
(c) It needs to regain lost confidence in the company's product or service
(d) It needs to avoid use of negative words that recall the unpleasant situation the reader wrote about
(e) All of the above.