Introduction to Management (MB111) : April 2004

Question Paper
Introduction to Management – (MB111) : April 2004
Section A : Basic Concepts (40 Marks)
• This section consists of questions with serial number 1 - 40.
• Answer all questions.
• Each question carries one mark.
1. Which of the following principles of Henry Fayol’s administrative theory runs contrary to Taylor’s
functional foremanship principle?
(a) Division of work (b) Unity of command
(c) Unity of direction (d) Centralization (e) Scalar chain.
(1 mark)
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2. Managers perform a number of roles in an organization. Which of the following roles aims to maintain
a link between the organization and its external environment?
(a) Figurehead (b) Leader (c) Liason (d) Monitoring (e)
Spokesperson.
(1 mark)
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3. Human values are the core of ethical or unethical behavior. Which of the following statements is not
true with regard to values?
(a) Values are global beliefs that guide actions and judgements across a variety of situations
(b) Values are part of the culture
(c) Values are learned over a period of time
(d) Values are gratifying
(e) Values are enduring with little room for flexibility.
(1 mark)
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4. Though the terms objectives and goals are used interchangeably, they are not the same. Which of the
following is not a dimension of the difference between the two terms?
(a) Organizational level (b) Time frame
(c) Specificity (d) Focus (e) Measurement.
(1 mark)
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5. Many organizations have failed to derive the expected results from MBO owing to the latter’s
limitations. Which of the following is not one such limitation?
(a) Time and cost (b) Failure to understand MBO philosophy
(c) Problems in objective setting (d) Emphasis on short-term objectives
(e) Flexibility.
(1 mark)
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6. Zero-base Budgeting (ZBB) is based on a system where each function – old or new – must be justified
in its entirety each time a new budget is formulated. ZBB has several benefits which include all of the
following except
(a) Effective allocation of resources
(b) Improved productivity and cost effectiveness
(c) Improved effectiveness of performance audit
(d) Better focus on organizational objectives
(e) Elimination of unnecessary activities.
(1 mark)
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7. Group decision-making has certain advantages over individual decision-making. Which of the
following statements is not true with regard to group decision-making?
(a) It allows pooling of knowledge and information
(b) It’s a source of personnel development
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(c) It discourages risk taking
(d) It’s time consuming and costly
(e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
8. Organizational decisions can be categorized into programmed and non-programmed decisions. Which
of the following is a non-programmed decision?
(a) Setting sales quota (b) Revising employee compensation
(c) Launching a new product (d) Promotion of supervisors
(e) Elimination of casual workers.
(1 mark)
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9. Which of the following decision-making techniques is most suitable for optimum allocation of
resources in an organization?
(a) Brainstorming (b) Delphi technique
(c) Nominal group technique (d) Linear programming (e)
Game theory.
(1 mark)
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10. Which of the following best describes an organization’s mission statement?
(a) A statement of activities for the year ahead
(b) An expression of organizational purpose
(c) A list of key business objectives
(d) A summary of the organization’s five-year plan
(e) A list of activities to be performed by the top-level management.
(1 mark)
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11. Corporate strategy is concerned primarily with
(a) The activities of individual business units and departments
(b) Short term tactics
(c) The scope and direction of individual business units
(d) The overall scope and direction of the organization
(e) All of the above.
(1 mark)
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12. The idea that workers look for meaning in their work and will actively seek out new responsibilities is
most consistent with which of these needs identified by Maslow?
(a) Safety (b) Social (c) Self-actualization
(d) Physiological (e) Love needs.
(1 mark)
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13. A manager’s posture during a communication with a colleague is an example of which aspect of the
communication process?
(a) Decoding (b) Non-verbal behavior
(c) Informal channel (d) The grapevine (e) Encoding.
(1 mark)
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14. The organization chart is a way of showing
(a) How the tasks of an organization are divided and co-ordinated
(b) The informal patterns of communication
(c) The stakeholders who have an interest in the company
(d) The physical layout of the buildings on a site
(e) The total assets the company owns.
(1 mark)
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15. When a manager secures the agreement of a colleague to work on a project in return for the promise of
providing the colleague with some extra remuneration, what type of power is he or she exercising?
(a) Expert power (b) Coercive power
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(c) Referent power (d) Reward power
(e) Legitimate power.
(1 mark)
16. Which of the following is/are not true of the activity known as job analysis?
(a) The job elements are rated in terms such as frequency of use or amount of time involved
(b) Jobs are broken into elements such as information or relations with other people
(c) The rate of pay for the job is fixed
(d) It aims to describe the purpose of a job and the conditions under which it is performed
(e) Both (a) and (b) above.
(1 mark)
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17. ……… spans of management create ……… structures with many levels of management.
(a) Wide; tall (b) Narrow; tall
(c) Wide; unpredictable (d) Narrow; flat (e) Flat, wide.
(1 mark)
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18. Which of the following is/are an advantage/advantages of a functional structure?
(a) Awareness of wider events in the organization enhances promotion prospects
(b) Specialization leads to high standards of efficiency
(c) Dedicated facilities meet customer needs quickly
(d) Staff can respond quickly to local business changes
(e) Both (a) and (d) above.
(1 mark)
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19. Which of the following is not one of the steps identified as part of the controlling process?
(a) Setting performance standards or goals
(b) Measuring performance
(c) Writing the reports
(d) Taking corrective action
(e) Using information gained from the process to set future performance standards.
(1 mark)
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20. According to Herzberg, which of the following can be classified as a motivator?
(a) Company policies (b) Working conditions
(c) Pay (d) Supervision (e)
Recognition.
(1 mark)
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21. Motivation is basically
(a) A function of money (b) An impossible task in the new millennium
(c) A need satisfying process (d) A function of the individual's childhood only
(e) A function of influencing people.
(1 mark)
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22. When managers pass through work areas and talk informally with workers, this is known as
(a) Management game (b) Management audit
(c) Management by exception (d) Management by objectives
(e) Management by wandering around.
(1 mark)
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23. According to Vroom’s expectancy theory, the perceived likelihood that performance will be followed
by a particular outcome is called
(a) Valence (b) Instrumentality (c) Expectancy
(d) The law of effect (e) Equity.
(1 mark)
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24. Which of the following refers to changing a task to make it inherently more rewarding, motivating and
satisfying?
(a) Enlargement (b) Rotation (c) Enhancement
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(d) Enrichment (e) Horizontal loading.
(1 mark)
25. A(n) _______ ratio shows the relative amount of funds in the business supplied by creditors and
shareholders.
(a) Liquidity (b) Leverage (c) Profitability (d) Current (e)
ROI.
(1 mark)
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26. When people are resisting because of adjustment problem, the _______ method for dealing with
resistance to change is commonly used.
(a) Facilitation and support (b) Explicit and implicit coercion
(c) Manipulation and cooptation (d) Participation and involvement
(e) Negotiation and agreement.
(1 mark)
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27. The plan of action that prescribes resource allocation and other activities for dealing with the
environment and helping the organization attain its goals is known as a(n)
(a) Goal (b) Objective (c) Mission (d) Vision (e)
Strategy.
(1 mark)
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28. According to Fiedler’s contingency model, leadership situations can be analyzed in terms of three
elements. What are they?
(a) The quantity of the membership, the organizational structure, and position of authority
(b) The quality of leader-member relationships, task structure, and position power
(c) The style of leadership, the educational level of the membership, and the use of power
(d) The power of the leadership, the member relationships, and the organizational structure
(e) Position power, power relationships, and the authority of the members.
(1 mark)
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29. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes authority?
(a) It is vested in people, not positions
(b) Subordinates accept it
(c) It flows across the horizontal hierarchy
(d) It emerges from the organizational values
(e) Individuals are born with this power.
(1 mark)
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30. Which of these refers to the set of characteristics that underlie a relatively stable pattern of behavior in
response to ideas, objects, or people in the environment?
(a) Dissonance (b) Personality (c) Halo effect (d) Attitude (e)
Perception.
(1 mark)
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31. The tendency to place the primary responsibility for one's success or failure either within oneself or on
outside forces is referred to as
(a) Authoritarianism (b) Emotional stability
(c) Locus of control (d) Extroversion (e)
Introversion.
(1 mark)
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32. The tendency to see one's own personal traits in other people is called
(a) Perceptual defense (b) Projection (c) Stereotyping
(d) The halo effect (e) Figure-ground.
(1 mark)
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33. A model of leadership that describes the relationship between leadership styles and specific
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organizational situations is referred to as
(a) Contingency approach (b) Behavioral approach
(c) Trait approach (d) Organizational approach
(e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
34. A key difference between the theories of Fiedler and Hersey and Blanchard is that
(a) Fiedler considered only task characteristics, while Hersey and Blanchard focused on the
individual
(b) Hersey and Blanchard placed a greater emphasis on task characteristics than did Fiedler
(c) Fiedler examined a variety of characteristics, while Hersey and Blanchard focused solely on the
individual
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.
(1 mark)
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35. Which of the following theories deals with employee's perception of fairness?
(a) Expectancy (b) Reinforcement
(c) Need hierarchy (d) Equity (e)
ERG.
(1 mark)
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36. When Frito Lay, Inc., the US snacks company, uses hand-held computers to monitor daily sales
activity, it is an example of
(a) Feedback control (b) Feedforward control
(c) Concurrent control (d) Technological control
(e) Hand-held control.
(1 mark)
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37. A financial budget that estimates cash flows on a daily basis or weekly basis to ensure that the company
can meet its obligations is called a
(a) Capital expenditure budget (b) Balance sheet budget
(c) Cash budget (d) Revenue budget (e) Profit
budget.
(1 mark)
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38. Which of these do you get when an organization's output of goods and services is divided by its inputs?
(a) Equity (b) Productivity (c)
Current ratio
(d) Profit (e) Economic order quantity.
(1 mark)
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39. ___________ is a process whereby companies find out how others do something better than they do
and then try to imitate or improve on it.
(a) TQM (b) Continuous improvement
(c) Benchmarking (d) Empowerment (e)
MBO.
(1 mark)
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40. Standing plans are
(a) Plans that are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future
(b) Plans that used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization
(c) Plans that define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks
(d) Most important in the organizations
(e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
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41. Wintel Corporation operates in a vibrant and unpredictable environment, which necessitates the use of
both functional and divisional structures and the organization is required to have flexibility to use the
functional resources across products or projects. Which of the following forms of organization structure
is most appropriate for Wintel?
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(a) Functional structure (b) Product division
(c) Customer division (d) Matrix structure (e) None of the
above.
(2 marks)
42. Quantitative techniques are very useful in making decisions under conditions of varying degrees of
uncertainty. Torque Engineering Co. Ltd. faces the problem of allocating resources to its newly set up
hydraulic pumps division. Which of the following decision-making techniques can help solve the
problem?
(a) Linear programming (b) Decision tree
(c) Simulation (d) Waiting-line method (e) Game
theory.
(2 marks)
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43. The open-system view of organizations stresses the need for adaptability in the organizational structure,
and the interdependence of the system and the external environment. Open-system organizations have
several common characteristics. Bajaj Auto’s entry into the motorcycles market in light of a fast
declining demand for scooters is an attempt to achieve which of the following?
(a) Equifinality (b) Dynamic homeostasis
(c) Entropy (d) Differentiation (e) None of
the above.
(2 marks)
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44. Quality of Work Life (QWL) aims at integrating the socio-psychological needs of people in the
organization, the unique requirements of a particular technology, the structure and processes of the
organization, and the existing socio-cultural milieu. It is concerned with the impact of work on people
as well as on organization effectiveness. All of the following practices help improve QWL except one.
Identify this practice.
(a) Flextime (b) Job enrichment
(c) Job enlargement (d) Creation of autonomous work groups
(e) Participation in decision-making.
(2 marks)
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45. In addition to Operations Research (OR) techniques, there are several other techniques that can be used
for improving productivity in organizations. Decibel Acoustics Ltd. has undertaken an exercise to
reduce costs by analyzing and improving individual operations of its products. Which of the following
techniques for improving productivity is Decibel said to have employed?
(a) Work simplification (b) Time-event network
(c) Value engineering (d) Total Quality Management (TQM)
(e) Quality Circles.
(2 marks)
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46. The quality of managers’ decisions is the yardstick of their effectiveness and of their value to the
organization. Piyush, the new Operations Manager of Phoenix Motors Ltd., has the knack of offering
quick-fix solutions to all the problems that arise in his department without regard to their long-term
implications. Which of the following decision-making models is Piyush said to be following?
(a) Rational model (b) Incremental model
(c) Satisficing model (d) Garbage can (e) Decision tree.
(2 marks)
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47. Blake and Mouton’s Managerial Grid is an approach to defining leadership styles based on a manager’s
concern for people and concern for production. Managerial grid is a useful device to a manager for
identifying and classifying managerial styles. It helps him/her understand why he/she gets the reaction
he/she does from his/her subordinates. Which of the following styles of management assumes exertion
of minimum effort is required to get work done and sustain organizational morale?
(a) Authority-obedience management (b) Team management
(c) Country Club management (d) Impoverished management
(e) Organization-man management.
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(2 marks)
48. Selection tests normally supplement the information provided in the application forms. They have
different objectives and measure different attributes. Arun, a candidate for the position of Sales
Representative in Elder Pharmaceuticals, was asked to make a presentation on a new anti-asthma
inhaler before a panel of physicians in the company, as part of the selection process. Which of the
following tests was Arun undergoing?
(a) Knowledge test (b) Work sample test
(c) Intelligence test (d) Personality test (e) None of the
above.
(2 marks)
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49. While growth through expansion of same line of business forces a small organization to organize on a
functional basis, growth through geographic and product diversification necessitates the adoption of
divisional structure. Divisional organization structure takes three forms: product division, geographic
division and customer division. Which of the following is an advantage of a product divisional
structure?
(a) It addresses the special and widely varied needs of customers for clearly defined services
(b) It encourages the development of expertise in functional areas
(c) It allows better understanding of local markets
(d) It brings about order and clarity to the activities of the organization
(e) It facilitates comparison of the performance of various product lines.
(1 mark)
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50. Authority has three characteristics. What are they?
(a) Authority is vested in organizational positions, not people; authority is accepted by subordinates;
authority flows down.
(b) Authority is not vested in organizational positions, but in people; authority is accepted by
subordinates; authority flows down the vertical hierarchy.
(c) Authority is vested in organizational positions, not people; authority is not accepted by
subordinates; authority flows down the vertical hierarchy.
(d) Authority is vested in organizational positions, not people; authority is accepted by subordinates;
authority flows down the horizontal hierarchy.
(e) Authority is not vested in organizational positions, but in people; authority should never be
accepted by subordinates; authority flows up and down the vertical hierarchy.
(1 mark)
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51. Perception depends on three factors: the perceiver, the perceived, and the situation. Which of the
following occurs when our general impression of a person, usually based on one prominent
characteristic, colors our perception of other characteristics of that person?
(a) Halo error (b) Self-serving bias
(c) Selective attention (d) Projection bias (e)
Stereotyping.
(1 mark)
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52. Runway Robotics Corporation has three planning specialists who help division managers develop their
own division plans. Serving as consultants to the divisions, the planning specialists give advice about
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. Runway Robotics Corporation is utilizing what
approach to the planning function?
(a) Centralized planning department (b) Decentralized planning staff
(c) Planning task force (d) Centralized planning committee (e)
TQM.
(1 mark)
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53. Various decision-making techniques are used in various situations. Which of the following decisionmaking
techniques involves a group of people brought together to generate as many novel ideas as
possible on a given topic without evaluating them?
(a) Nominal groups (b) Interacting groups
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(c) Delphi groups (d) Brainstorming
(e) Marginal analysis.
(1 mark)
54. Pauline is a manager at Mildtek Corporation. Her job is very complex and she feels that she does not
have enough time to identify and/or process all the information she needs to make decisions. Pauline’s
situation is most consistent with which of the following concepts?
(a) Bounded rationality (b) The classical model of decision making
(c) Satisficing (d) Brainstorming
(e) Scientific management.
(1 mark)
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55. Pranav is a manager at Paragon Chemical Corporation, who has highly mature subordinates. Hersey and
Blanchard’s situational leadership theory suggests that the leadership style should be commensurate
with the subordinates’ level of maturity, which in turn depends on their ability and willingness to do a
particular job. Which of the following leadership styles is best for Pranav?
(a) Participating (b) Delegating
(c) Selling (d) Telling (e)
Forcing.
(1 mark)
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56. Control may be of different types and these can be classified on the basis of the elements to be
controlled and the stage at which control can be exercised .Vibgyor Electronics Ltd. sends a postpurchase
questionnaire to all consumers who buy their products. They are interested in gathering data
on product quality, customer service orientation, and customer satisfaction. This is an example of
(a) Concurrent control (b) Feedback control
(c) Feedforward control (d) Preliminary control
(e) Preventive control.
(2 marks)
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57. Four months ago, Taylor Construction needed three employees to rebuild the electrical boxes for their
customers due to the various tasks involved. After successfully retraining the employees, a single
employee can now handle all facets of this job. This is an example of
(a) Job enlargement (b) Job rotation
(c) Shoddy workmanship (d) Job enrichment (e) Job sharing.
(1 mark)
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58. Mark's Embroidery produces custom-made embroidery products. One department sells to retail
customers, another department sells to catalog customers, and a third department sells only to college
bookstores. Mark's Embroidery is departmentalized by
(a) Product (b) Customer (c) Geographical location
(d) Process (e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
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59. Various techniques can be used to overcome resistance to change in an organization. Jaydeep,
production manager in Praxis Tools Ltd., has warned his employees that they must vote against
unionization in order to be assured of continued employment. What technique is Jaydeep using to resist
change?
(a) Coercion (b) Cooptation
(c) Negotiation (d) Education (e) Communication.
(1 mark)
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60. A decision support system (DSS) is an interactive computer system used to plan and make decisions.
Which of the following is not true with regard to Decision Support System (DSS)?
(a) Executive decisions are the focal points in DSS
(b) DSS specializes in easy-to-use software
(c) DSS employs interactive processing
(d) The control and use of DSS rests with the central information management department
(e) DSS is adaptable to change.
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(2 marks)
61. Zubeida, the HR manager in BrainTree Consulting, needs to examine the process of employee turnover
in her company and the resultant effects and costs of being realized by the company. Upon careful
examination of the financial records in her own department, Zubeida noted that the following factor
stood out as a major cost:
(a) Orientation programs for new employees
(b) Resentment of new employees by existing employees
(c) Design and development of new evaluation forms
(d) Resistance to new employees by the HR department
(e) Recruitment, selection and training of new employees.
(2 marks)
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62. As organizations have widened spans of control, flattened structures, introduced teams, reduced
formalization and empowered employees, the ________ provided by a strong culture ensures that
everyone is pointed in the same direction.
(a) Language (b) Shared meaning
(c) Hiring practices (d) Rules and regulations (e) Material
symbols.
(1 mark)
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63. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, the main function of a leader is to clarify and set goals
with subordinates, to help them to find the best path for achieving the goals, and to remove the
obstacles to their performance and need satisfaction. All of the following statements are true except
(a) Directive leadership is appropriate if tasks already are well structured
(b) Directive leadership will create greater dissatisfaction if the task and the authority or rule system
are dissatisfying
(c) Supportive leadership is less important if the primary work group provides social support to its
members
(d) If the task or authority system is dissatisfying, supportive leadership is especially appropriate,
because it offers one positive source of gratification in an otherwise negative situation
(e) A directive style is more appropriate when subordinates' ability is low.
(2 marks)
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64. In an attempt to help its employees resolve group dynamics issues on their own, Centura Synthetics has
engaged a consultant who would observe the employees at work and give them feedback regarding
dysfunctions in conflict resolution etc. Which of the following Organization Development (OD)
intervention techniques was Centura employing?
(a) Survey feedback (b) Process consultation
(c) Team building (d) Third-party intervention
(e) Techno structural activities.
(1 mark)
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65. As performance is multidimensional, performance appraisal methods must consider various aspects of a
job. The most widely used appraisal approaches focus on employee behavior or performance results.
Listing the ranges of performance values for specified traits is a feature of which of the following
performance appraisal methods?
(a) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
(b) Graphic rating scales
(c) 360 degree appraisal
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.
(1 mark)
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66. Which of the following theories specifically postulates that motivation of employees will be high when
employees believe that a high level of effort on their part will lead to high performance on their part,
and that this high level of performance will lead to their attainment of outcomes which they desire (e.g.
higher pay, promotion, etc.)?
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(a) Expectancy theory (b) Valence theory
(c) Hierarchy of needs theory (d) Motivator-hygiene theory
(e) Goal-setting theory.
(1 mark)
67. Crescent Art Gallery is characterized by separation of management from ownership and by clearly
defined lines of authority and responsibility. Specialization, stable and exhaustive rules, and impersonal
relationships are the other features of Crescent. Which of the following best describes Crescent Art
Gallery’s approach to organization?
(a) Scientific management (b) Bureaucratic organization
(c) Administrative management theory (d) Human resource management
(e) All of the above.
(1 mark)
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68. Some organizational structures are characterized by multiple reporting relationships while others adhere
to unitary reporting relationship. Which of the following organizational structures violates the principle
of unity of command as stated by Henry Fayol?
(a) Functional structure (b) Matrix structure
(c) Divisional structure (d) Geographical structure
(e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
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69. Transformational leadership is the set of abilities that allow the leader to recognize the need for change,
to create a vision to guide that change, and to execute that change effectively, while transactional
leadership involves routine, regimented activities – assigning work, evaluating performance, and so
forth. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformational leader?
(a) Treats all employees collectively as one
(b) Provides vision and sense of mission
(c) Inspires exertion of extra effort for goal achievement
(d) Communicates high expectations
(e) Encourages innovative approaches to old problems.
(2 marks)
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70. A skills inventory is a computerized database containing basic information about each employee that
can be used to assess the availability of candidates for meeting current and future human resource
needs. Which of the following is an application of skills inventory?
(a) Forecasting manpower demand (b) Forecasting manpower supply
(c) Replacement training (d) Succession planning
(e) Planning human resource actions.
(1 mark)
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71. If a manager holds theory X assumptions about his/her subordinates while the subordinates attitudes
and behaviors fit into theory Y, which of the following statement is true if the MBO program is to be
implemented?
(a) Likelihood of failure is high
(b) Likelihood of success is high
(c) Likelihood of success, if manager changes his/her assumptions to theory Y
(d) Likelihood of success, if the subordinates change their attitudes and behaviors to theory X
(e) Likelihood of success, if manager changes his/her assumptions to theory Y and subordinates
change their attitudes and behaviors to theory X.
(2 marks)
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72. Long-term decision is not a process of making the future decision but a means of reflecting the future in
today’s decision. The future conditions for a decision vary along a continuum ranging from conditions
of perfect certainty to conditions of complete uncertainty. Risk is a situation where the decision maker
(a) Knows, with reasonable certainty, what the alternatives are and what conditions and outcomes are
associated with each alternative
(b) Has incomplete information about available alternatives but has a good idea of the probability of
particular outcomes associated with each alternative
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(c) Is not aware of all available alternatives and the probability of the outcomes associated with each
alternative
(d) Both (b) and (c) of the above
(e) Both (a) and (c) of the above.
(1 mark)
73. If a manager has 5 subordinates, the number of relationships, according to Graicunas’ principle, is
(a) 175 (b) 159 (c) 100 (d) 84 (e)
5.
(2 marks)
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74. Which of the following theories of motivation does not, at least in part, take into account of the
physiological needs?
(a) Alderfer’s ERG theory
(b) Mc Clelland’s Acquired Needs theory
(c) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory
(d) Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory
(e) None of the above.
(1 mark)
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75. Which of the following leadership models recommends a dynamic and flexible leadership style rather
than static style and is based on the premise that the leaders need to alter their behaviors depending on
one major situational factor – the readiness of followers?
(a) Fiedler’s Contingency Approach to Leadership
(b) Path-Goal Theory
(c) Vroom-Yetton’s Model
(d) Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model
(e) Transformational Leadership Theory.
(1 mark)
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76. Richard has been unemployed for three months. When his wife asked him, why he was not looking for
a job, Richard responded, “If I am lucky, I will get my old job back.” Richard would be considered as
having a(n)
(a) High ego strength (b) External Locus of control
(c) Intuition type personality (d) Internal locus of control (e) Low ego strength.
(1 mark)
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77. The ethical guide line “Primum Non-Nocere” for managers denotes
(a) Allow room for participation (b) Above all, do no harm
(c) Uphold human dignity (d) Obeying the law (e) Tell the truth.
(1 mark)
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78. If a group of Afro-American female managers meet once a month to discuss possible career paths
within their organization, this is an example of a(n)
(a) Nominal group (b) Delphi group
(c) Interacting group (d) Quality circle (e) Interest group.
(1 mark)
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79. Raj, Rahul, Ramesh and Rohit all wanted to start their own business after they graduated with their
Bachelor of Science degrees. They had a common purpose, they had set performance standards for
themselves and they had an approach to hold themselves mutually accountable. They can be referred as
a
(a) Group (b) Alliance (c) Federation (d) Team (e) Cooperation.
(1 mark)
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80. The stage of Kurt Lewin's change model where employees need to be helped to integrate changed
attitudes and behaviors into their normal ways of doing things is called ___.
(a) Refreezing (b) Changing (c) Unfreezing (d) Benchmarking (e) Moving.
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(1 mark)
81. Communication is the transfer of information in the form of an understandable message through a
channel from a sender to others. If Boeing Aerospace Co. has difficulty communicating with the British
Air Force because of the abbreviations used by the British military, this is a problem in
(a) The grapevine (b) Feedback (c) Semantics (d) Decoding (e)
Encoding.
(1 mark)
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82. A small group gathered in the conference room to discover the impact they had on others, to explore
and express their feelings, and to learn more about them. What is this Organization Development (OD)
application called?
(a) Team building (b) Hostile confrontation
(c) Strategic intervention (d) Sensitivity training
(e) Process consultation
(1 mark)
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83. Mr. Jackson is the most successful manager of CRIPS Inc. During his tenure, the company has never
looked back. One of the reasons for his success is his ability to think through abstract situations. It is the
ability to understand and coordinate full range of corporate objectives and activities. Which of the
following skills is Mr. Jackson good at?
(a) Technical skills (b) Design skills (c) Conceptual skills
(d) Human skills (e) PR Skills.
(1 mark)
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84. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the organization culture?
(a) Corporate culture is based on certain norms (b) Promotes dominant and stable values
(c) Leads to observed behavioral regularities (d) Corporate culture is built overnight
(e) It shapes philosophy.
(1 mark)
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85. Advertisements for products and services such as life insurance policies, mouthwash and deodorants
play upon fear. By showing the unfortunate consequences that a consumer faces if he doesn’t use the
service or product, advertisers force the consumers to purchase the product or service. Such ads use
(a) Legitimate power (b) Coercive power (c) Expert power
(d) Referent power (e) Reward power.
(1 mark)